Quiz Preparation – UMD Racing e.V.

Quiz „Basics“

1 / 10

What penalty is given for a doo in Skidpad?

a. 0.2 seconds

b. 2 seconds

c. 10 seconds

d. DQ

2 / 10

A team can register up to how many Electrical System Officers?

a. 4 but one of them has to be a driver

b. 2

c. 2 with an additional Autonomous System Responsible

d. 3

e. As many as they like

f. 4

See FSG Rules 2023 A4.3.1

3 / 10

What does the red flag mean during the driving disciplines?

a. The driver must be prepared to overtake a slower car on the racing line

b. The driver must slow down, something has happened on track. No overtaking unless directed by track marshals

c. The driver must immediate stop on track in a safe and controlled way

d. The track is slippery. The driver must be prepared for evasive maneuvers to avoid the situation

See FSG Rules 2023 D2.1.8

4 / 10

How long is water sprayed on the car during the rain test?

a. 45 secs

b. 60 secs

c. 100 secs

d. 120 secs

See FSG Rules 2023 IN9.2.7

5 / 10

Which of the following parts are not part of the Shutdown Circuit? (Multiple choice)

a. TSAL

b. Inertia Switch

c. BOTS

d. LVMS

See FSG Rules 2023 EV6.1

6 / 10

What is BOM short for?

a. Beginning of Mission

b. Bill of Material

c. Basics of Mechanics

7 / 10

What is allowed regarding telemetry during a run?

a. Receiving data from the vehicle

b. Sending commands via the RES

c. Sending commands to the vehicle via W-Lan

d. Software changes to the vehicle

8 / 10

What needs to be considered when entering the Dynamic Area?

a. Wearing a Helmet: FIA 8860-2010, FIA 8860-2018

b. Wearing dynamic vests

c. Having the car nearby

9 / 10

What is AMS short for?

a. Autonomous Models Summary

b. Alternative Manufacturing Solution

c. Accumulator Management System

10 / 10

What is the minimum allowed ground clearance, excluding driver?

a. 35 mm

b. not defined in rules

c. 25 mm

d. 30 mm

See FSG Rules 2023 T2.2.1

Dein Ergebnis ist

Die durchschnittliche Punktzahl beträgt 64%

Quiz „Intermediate“

1 / 20

Your team reiceves 59.3 points for their autocross run. The fastest time overall was 71.9 secs. How long was your team’s fastest run? Round to one decimal place.

See FSG Rules 2023 D6.3.2 & D9.1.7

2 / 20

What is the minimum allowed static ground clearance, including driver?

a. 35 mm

b. 25 mm

c. 20 mm

d. 30 mm

See FSG Rules 2023 T2.2.1

Steps:

calculate average time between left circle and right circle for each run
add any penalties to these times
decide on the best time of Team A and Team B
slowest time between these two best times is T_team
fastest time between these two best times gets multipled by 1.25 and is T_max
use formula from FSG Rules 2023 D4.4.3

3 / 20

Assuming the skid pad event has only two participants, both EV without driverless. Team A and Team B: calculate the score rounded to two decimals for the team scoring the lower amount of points using the following data. (FS2025 Rules)

4 / 20

How many percentage of points is the Cost Understanding in the Overall Cost and Manufacturing Event?

a. 30 %

b. 40 %

c. 25 %

d. 50 %

See FSG Rules 2023 S2.10.1

5 / 20

Which statement about the Ready-To-Drive sound is correct?

a. It can be similar to the road noise, but must be louder

b. Animal voices, except goat voices, are forbidden

c. The maximum duration is one secound

d. The used sound must be easily recognisable

See FSG Rules 2023 E4.12

6 / 20

How many points are assigned for the BOM discussion in the Cost and Manufacturing Event?

a. 115

b. 10

c. 50.0

d. 60.75

See FSG Rules 2023 S2.10.1

7 / 20

Which of the following requirements is a must for all types of vehicles, when moving the vehicle on the competition site?

a. A registered driver wearing the required driver equipment as defined in T 13.3 including helmet, arm restraints and balaclava having full control of steering and braking

b. Detached master switch

c. Vehicles must be pushed at a normal walking pace by means of a red pushbar

d. Two team members walking on either side of the vehicle

See FSG Rules 2023 A.6.7

8 / 20

Can a team be eliminated from the Engineering Design Event by the judges, if every document of theirs was accepted and they are present at the Engineering Design Event?

a. No, if a team is present at the event, the judges are obligated to evaluate their performance

b. Yes, if the judges consider the number of the team members present at the discussion insufficient

c. Yes, if the judges consider the vehicle to be in unfinished state

d. Yes, if the team did not pass any scrutineering prior

See FSG Rules 2023 S3.5.1

9 / 20

What is the minimum height of the characters of the car number?

a. 200 mm

b. 100 mm

c. 150 mm

d. Large enough to read it from 20 m distance

See FSG Rules 2023 T12.1.2

10 / 20

Each team must have two 0.8kg fire extinguishers.

a. True

b. False

See FSG Rules 2022 T13.4.1

11 / 20

What is the penatly for hitting over a cone during skidpad?

a. 2 secs

b. 0.2 secs

c. 10 secs

d. disqualified

See FSG Rules 2023 D9.1.7

12 / 20

What does the yellow flag mean during the driving disciplines?

a. The driver must be prepared to overtake a slower car on the racing line

b. The track is slippery. The driver must be prepared for evasive maneuvers to avoid the situation

c. The driver must slow down, something has happened on track. No overtaking unless directed by track marshals

d. The driver must immediate stop on track in a safe and controlled way

See FSG Rules 2023 D2.1.9

13 / 20

What is the minimum height of the university name and the car number added together?

a. 50 mm

b. 150 mm

c. 200 mm

d. 250 mm

See FSG Rules 2023 T12.2.2 and T12.1.2

14 / 20

Your team completes their best manual skidpad run in 5.9 secs. The fastest team overall completed their run in 5.1 secs. How many points did your team recieve for skidpad? Round to one decimal place.

See FSG Rules 2023 D4.4.3

15 / 20

What is the maximum hight for aerodynamic devices rearward of a vertical plane through the rearmost portion of
the front face of the driver head restraint support ?

a. 0.8 m

b. 1.1 m

c. 9.3 dm

d. 1.25 m

See FSG Rules 2023 S3.2

16 / 20

How many percentage of points are the Finances in the Business Plan Presentation Event?

a. 15 %

b. 25 %

c. 10 %

d. 20 %

See FSG Rules 2023 S1.4.1

17 / 20

The Electrical System Officer must: (Multiple Choice)

a. Not be the team captain

b. Switch off the Tractive System Master Switch during driver change

c. Attend a separate ESO meeting on the first day of the competition

d. Be present during driver change

e. Be the one driving the accumulator cart

f. Be one of the members pushing the car with the push bar

g. Present whenever work is performed on the Tractive System

See FSG Rules 2023 A6.10.2, D7.5.2 & D7.5.6

18 / 20

What is the penatly for driving off course during acceleration?

a. 2 secs

b. disqualified

c. did not finish

d. 30 secs

See FSG Rules 2023 D9.1.7

installation cost: 400.000 EUR
machine cost: 20.000 EUR x 5 years = 100.000 EUR
material cost: 50 EUR x 1200 cars = 60.000 EUR
Total cost: 560.000 EUR
Cost per car: 560.000 EUR /1200 = 560 EUR

19 / 20

To build your race car you need a part what can be bought on the public market for 450 EUR per piece. Your plan is to sell 1200 race cars the next five years. If you will manufacture the part by yourself, you need an investment of 400.000 EUR for the installation. Furthermore, you need to pay 20.000 EUR per year for the machine operator. The material costs are 50 EUR per piece. The machine cannot be sold after the usage. What is the cost of one piece of the own manufactured parts? Give answer as one whole number

20 / 20

What is the penatly for driving off course during endurance?

a. disqualified

b. 30 secs

c. 2 secs

d. 10 secs

See FSG Rules 2023 D9.1.7

Dein Ergebnis ist

Die durchschnittliche Punktzahl beträgt 57%

Quiz „Electrical“

1 / 10

The following processes have to be measured by the AMS. (Multiple choice)

a. Cell voltages when the charger is connected to the accumulator

b. TS current when the LVS is active

c. Cell temperatures of 30% most thermally critical cells

d. All cell voltages that are SCS

e. Cell temperatures of at least 30% of all cells distributed in at least 75% of all segments

f. TS current but only if it can be displayed during technical inspection

See FSG rules 2023: EV5.8.1, EV5.8.1 & EV5.8.3, EV5.8.10

2 / 10

You have an electric car with these specifications:

ten 12V batteries
constant velocity of 80 km/h
flat road (friction 1.2kN -> aerodynamic load included)
load for battery 160 Ah
efficiency of 80% (Motor)

How far can you drive with one load? Give answer to nearest whol number in km.

3 / 10

Which of the following requirements of the brake light assembly must be met to be rules compliant? (multiple choice)

a. The brake light must be a red light on a black surface

b. Clearly visible from the back at bright sunlight with a viewing angle of at least 30°

c. The brake light measures least 10 cm2 with an even level of brightness

d. The brake light must be illuminated when driving into the driver change area

e. The shape of the break light can be a square or a circle

f. The brake light must be functioning even if HV- or LV-power supply failed or is being disconnected

See FSG rules 2023: T6.3

4 / 10

You want to drive with a Lithium Polymer Cell with 3.2 Ah and weighing 70 g. Which of the following configurations would be allowed by the rules? Hint: Unorm = 3.7 V, Umax = 4.2 V

a. 4 compartments in series with 4p32s configurations

b. 4 compartments in series with 6p26s configurations

c. 6 compartments in series with 4p28s configurations

d. 5 compartments in series with 4p22s configurations

5 / 10

Your team is considering two languages, Verilog and VHDL, for programming an FPGA. Which languages could be used?

a. Neither of these

b. Only VHDL

c. Only Verilog

d. Both

6 / 10

A thin circular, isolated wire made of copper with radius R lies on a table with its ends
connected to a Volt meter. Another, straight wire lies exactly along a diameter of the
circular wire, connected to an alternate current source i(t) = I0 sin(wt).
The experimental setup is shown in the following Figure:

Which effective voltage Ueff does the Volt meter display?
R = 10 cm, maximum current I0 = 1 A, f = 50 Hz.
Give your answer in Volts with three decimal places

The magnetic field lines H around the straight, current-carrying wire run in concentric circles, with their centres lying on the wire axis. The field lines thus enter the wire perpendicularly in one half of the circle and leave it perpendicularly in the opposite half. This means that one semicircle of the induction loop is penetrated by the time-varying magnetic flux (t), while the opposite semicircle is penetrated by exactly the opposite flux -(t) for reasons of symmetry. The total flux at any time is zero at all times, which means that no induction voltage and thus no effective voltage Ueff is indicated at any time. The specification of the data in the task was therefore completely superfluous.

7 / 10

Which of the following statements is false regarding the difference between Lead-based batteries, Nickel-based batteries and Lithium-based batteries?

a. The Lithium-based batteries typically have the highest specific energy

b. The Lead based batteries typically have a nominal voltage of 2V

c. The Nickel based batteries have the lowest nominal voltage

d. The Lithium-based batteries can achieve specific energies of over 200 Wh/kg

e. The Nickel based batteries typically have the lowest specific energy

no solution currently

8 / 10

For this Wheatstone Bridge based NTC temperature measurement circuit, which is the lowest voltage measurement (VAB) that is possible to obtain at 60ºC? (NTC B: 3435 +/-1%) Give answer in Volts rounded to two decimal points.

9 / 10

Which of the following statements about the Tractive System Accumulator are wrong? (Multiple choice)

a. NiMH type cells are allowed

b. The maximum temperature limit for LiFePo4 cells is 60°C

c. There must be inspection holes in the side wall and the bottom of the TSAC if the wall thickness cannot be determined otherwise

d. Accumulator container attachments can be made of 1 mm thick steel

e. All electrical safety items used for working on the accumulator must be rated for 1000 VDC

f. If carried out correctly, a three-point bending test is sufficient to prove adequate strength of composite material used for a TSAC if the data and photos are provided in the SES

g. The TSAC can be protected from rear impact by a square tube with an edge length of and a wall thickness of 1.2 mm

h. The ESO’s name and phone number can be displayed in characters with a height of 25 mm on the TSAC’s lid

See FSG rules 2023. Correct answers:

EV5.5.5
T 3.2.1, T 3.15, 5.5.2, Asquare tube=90.24 mm²
EV 5.5.14
IN 3.2.2 only for TS voltage

10 / 10

Which of these HV- and LV-components have to be fire-retardant? (Multiple Choice)

a. Spare TSAC

b. A dividing element between the main fuse, the AIRs and the rest of the TSAC

c. Every wire used inside of the TSAC

d. A device above the segments to prevent arc flashes

e. An LV energy storage with a lithium iron phosphate chemistry

f. Both layers of the fire wall including the material that bonds them together

See FSG rules 2023: EV5.3.4, EV5.4.6, EV5.5.12

Dein Ergebnis ist

Die durchschnittliche Punktzahl beträgt 30%

Quiz „General Engineering“

1 / 10

A team is in the process of validating the compliance of the shoulder harness bar used in their car. Choose the part in which their configuration is incompliant:

a. From the driver’s shoulders rearwards to the mounting point or structural guide, the shoulder harness is 8° above the horizontal

b. The steel tube has a thickness of 2 mm, and a 0.26% in carbon and 1.7% manganese content

c. The bar is bent (not straight) and the team uses an analysis method of inducing 7kN to each attachment in the horizontal plane to prove compliance

d. The attachments are positioned 220 mm apart, measured center to center, and have a thickness of 1.7 mm

See FSG rules 2023 T3.2

2 / 10

A water tank under a pressure of p = 117.72 kPa has three pipes connected to it, which are sealed 5 meters below the water surface by three plates with areas A₁, A₂, and A₃.
Task:
Sort the pressures p₁, p₂, and p₃ according to their magnitude.

a. p1=p2=p3

b. p1>p2>p3

c. p2=p1>p3

d. p2>p1>p3

e. p2>p3>p1

3 / 10

You would like to drink a cup of very hot coffee with milk early in the morning, but you
are in a hurry and have only 5 minutes until you have to leave for work. At which time
after brewing should you add the cold milk to the coffee and stir in order to decrease the
temperature of the mixture as much as possible:
a) 0 minutes (immediately),
b) 2 minutes, or
c) 4 minutes?
Suppose that the stirring can be done instantaneously and that you need the last one
minute for drinking.

brew temperature C = 80 ◦C, temperature of milk = M = 10 ◦C, room temperature
0 = 20 ◦C, volume of coffee VC = 300 ml, volume of milk VM = 100 ml, specific heat
capacity of coffee cC = 4180 J/(kgK), specific heat capacity of milk cM = 3500 J/(kgK).

Please enter only the letter of the corresponding answer

a. 2 mins

b. 0 mins

c. 4 mins

The driving „force“ for the cooling of the coffee is the temperature difference between the warm coffee and the environment (room temperature), which leads to an exponential drop in coffee temperature. The temperature difference is greatest immediately after brewing. The later we stir in the milk, the lower the coffee temperature has already dropped. On the other hand, lowering the temperature by the milk becomes smaller the longer we wait.
So we let the coffee cool down on its own for as long as possible in order to bring about the temperature reduction by the cold milk at the end. The greatest possible cooling is therefore achieved when the milk is added after 4 minutes.

4 / 10

An air stream

dot{M}_L = 5.5 kg/s,

cp_L=1 kJ/(kgK)

is to be heated in a plate heat exchanger from

θ_L′=20∘C

θ_L′′=150∘C

. For this purpose, a flue gas stream

dot{M}_R = 7.22

cp_R=1.1 kJ/(kgK)

with a temperature of

θ_R′=300∘C

is available. The overall heat transfer coefficient is

W/(m^2*K)

.
What is the required heating surface AAA if the fluid streams are arranged in counterflow?

a. 328,1 m^2

b. 314,12 m^2

c. 281,7 m^2

5 / 10

Three inductors are connected as shown in the following figure:

Given that L1 = 2L2, find L1 and L2 such that the equivalence inductance is L = 0.7 H.
Give your answers in Henry, rounded to three decimal places separated by a comma (L1, L2)

series connection: L = 0.5 H + (L1*L2)/(L1 + L2) = 0.7 H
sub-in and rearrange to Solve for L2: (2L2)^2/(3L2) = 0.2 H
sub-in L2 to find L1

6 / 10

A helicopter of mass 4200 kg is carrying a crate using a light extensible rope. The crate has a total mass of 800 kg, including its contents. The helicopter and crate are accelerating upwards at 2.0 ms^-2. What is the tension in the rope? Use gravititational field strength g is 9,81 N/kg. Air resistance can be ignored. Give answer to nearest whole number in Newtons

Tension = net force -> Tension = m*a (of system) + m*g (of system)

7 / 10

The kinetic energy of a 8 lbs 4 oz box as it was dropped reaching ground is 10125J. Determine the speed as it lands. Give answer to one decimal place in m/s.

KE = 0.5 * m * v^2

8 / 10

Calculate the gravitational potential energy of a 4 kg object at 15 m above Earth’s surface with gravitational field strength of 9.81 N/kg. Give answer to three significant figures in J.

E = m * g * h

9 / 10

Calculate the Normal force on the rear left tyre during the first skidpad lap. You can assume, that your vehicle is in a steady-state condition and that there is no longitudinal acceleration. Further it can be assumed, that all 4 wheels have a lateral grip coefficient of 1.4. You can use the centerline radius stated in the rules. Following information regarding the vehicle are given. Give answer to nearest whole number in Newtons.

m = 220 kg

Cl = 3.8

A = 1 m^2

Rho = 1.1 kg/m^3

Wheelbase: L = 1.53

Trackwidth:t = 1.2 m

Height of CG: h = 0.2 m

Weight distribution/COP: 50%

(m*g + 0.5*rho*A*Cl*v^2)*μ = m * (v^2)/R
Calculate max corning speed:
Calculate lateral acceleration: a = v^2/R
Create equation of forces acting on the vehicle to find normal force on rear left tyre:
F= 0.25*m*g + 0.25*0.5*rho*A*Cl*v^2 – 0.5*m*a*h/t

10 / 10

in m, to decimal numbers seperated by a point (example: 150.00), no unit requirment for the solution

Dein Ergebnis ist

Die durchschnittliche Punktzahl beträgt 0%